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1.      The study of identification and comparative evaluation of a new drug with existing

         drug is known as

         a. Pharmacogenomics                                       b.  Pharmcometrics

         c. Pharmacoeconomics                                      d.  Pharmacoepidemiology


2.      Pharmacoepidemology is emerging branch of pharmacy. Pick the correct options.

         P.  It is important topic for regulatory authorities for issuing licence.

         Q.  It deals with identification and comparative evaluation of drugs.

         R.  It deals with study of drug effects over a group of population.

         S.  Licensing authorities do not require details of pharmacoepidemology


         a.  P, Q               b.  P,R             c.  R,S             d.  Q,R


3.      Therapeutic index is determined in which phase of clinical trials.

         a.  Phase-I                                                          b.  Phase-III    

         c.  Phase-II                                                         d.  Phase-IV


4.      Pick the wrong option regarding idiosyncratic reaction.

         a. They are not predictable and uncommon

         b. Do not depend on the dose

         c. It may be due to immunological and genetic cause

         d. Withdrawal of drug is not required


5.      Therapeutic index is a ratio of toxic dose to effective dose. Pick correct options.

         P.  Larger the TI, safer the drug

         Q.  Smaller the TI, toxic the drug

         R.  Larger the TI, toxic the drug

         S.  Smaller the TI, safer the drug


         a.  P,Q                b.  Q,R             c.  R,S             d.  S,P


6.      Type -A adverse drug reactions are characterized by which of the following.

a.  Idiosyncratic reaction

b.  A function of patient's susceptibility

c.   Caused by drug-drug interactions

d.  All the above


7.      Withdrawal symptoms are elicited by

         a.  Clonidine                                                      b.  Benzodiazepines   

         c.  Tricyclic anti depressants                            d.  All the above


8.      Parkinsonism is produced by phenothiazines and antipsychotic drugs. It is known as

         a.  Iatrogenic                                                      b.  Idopatic

         c.  Teratogenic                                                   d.  Carcinogenic


9.      Teratogenic effect of phenytoin is

         a.  Hypoplastic phalanges                                 b. Cleft lip

         c. Both a & b                                                     d.  None of the above


10.    Hydrochlorothiazides and triamterene produce which type of antagonism

         a.  Competitive antagonism

         b.  Non-competitive antagonism

         c.  Physiological antagonism

         d.  None of the above


11.    Sublingual route of administration has the following properties except

         a.  Rapid onset of action

         b.  Devoid of first pass metabolism

         c.  Reduce toxic and adverse reactions

         d.  High molecular weight compounds can be given


12.    The term isobaro is an important factor for

         a.  Intrathecal injections                                                b.  Intravenous injections

         c.  Subcutaneous injections                               d.  All the above


13.    To diagnose "Heart block", angiography is performed, the route selected for injecting radiolabelled dye is

         a.  I.V                                                                 b.  S.C

         c.  Intra-arterial                                                 d.  Intra-articular


14.    Phlebitis is an important disadvantage of which route of administration

         a.  SC                                                                 b.  Oral

         c.  IM                                                                 d.  IV


15.    Allosteric antagonism is a mechanism of action of which of the following drug

         a. Adrenaline                                                     b.  Diazepam

         c.  Atenolol                                                        d.  None of the above


16.    Na+/K+ ATPase pump is an example of which transport.

         a.  Simport                                                         b.  Antiport

         c.  Both a and b                                                  d.  None of the above


17.    Creatinine clearance is measured by

         a.  Renal excretion rate                                     b.  Drug metabolism rate

         c.  Active renal secretion                                  d.  Glomerular filtration rate



18.    The intensity of the pharmacological action of a drug mostly depends on the

a.  Concentration of drug at the receptor site

b.  Minimum toxic concentration of the drug

c.  Minimum effective concentration of the drug

d.  Elimination half life of the drug


19.    Earliest evidence that a drug is stored in tissue is

a.  Increase in plasma protein binding

b.  Large apparent volume of distribution

c.  Decrease in the amount of the drug excreted by urine

d.  Decrease in the number of side effects produced by drug


20.    Olsalazine is

         a. Inactive drug biotransformed to an active drug

         b. Active drug biotransformed to inactive drug

         c. Invivo enzymatic transformation into non toxic metabolite

         d. Invivo enzymatic transformation into drug with reduced side effects


21.    The receptor which produces faster action is

         a. Ligand-gated ion channel     

         b. G-protein coupled receptor

         c. Kinase-linked receptor

         d. Nuclear receptor


22.    Name the drug which inhibits phosphodiesterases

         a.  Caffeine                                                        b. Sildenafil

         c.  Indomethacine                                              d. All the above


23.    Name the enzyme which converts PIP2 to IP3 and DG

         a.  Phospholipase-C                                           b.  Phospholipase-A

         c.  Phosphodiesterase                                        d.  Carbonic anhydrase


24.    Among the following which is a secondary messenger

         a.  c-AMP                                                          b.  IP3

         c.  DAG                                                              d.  All the above


25.    Nicotinic receptor is an example of

         a. Ligand-gated ion channel

         b. G-protein coupled receptor

         c. Kinase-linked receptor

         d. Nuclear receptor


26.    An agent used in prinzmetal angina and has spasmolytic activity is

         a.  Nitroglycerine                                                          b.  Nifedipine

         c.  Timolol                                                                     d.  Iso-sorbide mononitrate


27.    The type of tolerance shown by nitrates is

         a.  Tissue tolerance                                            b. Cross tolerance

         c.  Both a and b                                                  d.  None of the above

28.    By which of the following, nitroglycerine's tolerance can be overcome?

         a.  Using high dose of drug

         b.  Discontinuing of drugs for 2-3 weeks

         c.  Avoiding the drug at night time

         d.  Using drug in the form of SR tablet and transdermal preparation

29.    Prof. Naidu came to a hospital by complaining pain in the chest  and radiating to the

         left hand. Then the doctor advised for stress studies. Prof. complained more pain in

         the chest during stress studies and pain relieved by taking rest.

         i.             What type of angina the prof. suffers from

                        a.  Prinzmetal angina                          b.  Unstable angina

                        c.  Stable angina                                 d.  Pre infraction angina

         ii.            What is adjuvant given during studies?

                        a.  Adenosine infusion                                    b.  Normal saline infusion

                        c.  Dextrose infusion                          d.  None of the above

         iii.          Name the drug to be prescribed among the following

                        a.  Nitroglycerine                               b.  Nifedipine

                        c.  Both a and b                                   d.  None of the above

30.    Which of the following agents used in prinzmetal angina has spasmolytic actions,

         which increase coronary blood supply?

         a.  Nitroglycerine                                              b.  Diltiazem

         c.  Timolol                                                         d.  Propranalol

31.    Patient with angina pectoris receiving propranolol plus diltiazem must be monitored

         for which adverse drug effect

         a.  Decrease cardiac output                               b.  Decrease heart rate

         c.  Increase heart rate                                        d.  Both a and b

32.    In which of the following poisoning nitrites are used

         a. Arsenic poisoning                                          b.  Cyanide poisoning

         c.  Organophosphorous poisoning                     d.  Heavy metal poisoning

33.    Which of the following adverse effect is likely to be experienced by nitroglycerine

         a.  Throbbing headache                                     b.  Sexual dysfunction

         c.  Anemia                                                         d.  Bradycardia

34.    Among the following dosage form of nitroglycerine which one would be useful in

         preventing prinzmetal angina?

         a.  Sublingual                                                     b.  Transdermal

         c.  Both a and b                                                  d.  None of the above

35.    Among the following drugs which one is used alternative to the nitrates?

         a.  Nicorandil                                                     b.  Nifedipine

         c.  Isradipine                                                      d.  None of the above








Name:                                                                         Sub  : Pharmacology

ID      :                                                                        Topic:Chemotherapy

Test   : 2                                                                      Date  :

1.      Metronidazole inhibits anaerobic bacteria and protozoa by

         a.  Affecting the structure of DNA molecule of the origin

         b.  Destroying the ribosomes

         c.  Inhibiting the cytochrome system

         d.  Inhibiting the protein synthesis


2.      Given below are antibacterial agent and mode of action (A-E).Match them correctly

         i.  Gentamycin                                       a. Inhibits the mycolic acid synthesis

         ii.  Isoniazid                                           b. Prevents the bacterial cell wall synthesis

         iii. Polymyxin  B                                   c. Binds with 30s ribosomal subunit (take

                                                                            false amino acid)

         iv.  Penicillin                                         d. Gets accumulated at cell wall membrane and

                                                                            counteract with cell phospholipids

                                                                        e. Destroys the nucleic acid

         A.  i- c                     B.  i-a                 C.  i-c                 D.  i-a

               ii-a                          ii-b                     ii-d                     ii-c

               iii-d                         iii-c                    iii-c                    iii-e

               iv-b                         iv-d                    iv-b                    iv-d


3.      Sulfamethoxazole is an antibacterial drug. It is a

         a.  Short acting drug

         b.  Short and intermediate acting drug

         c.  Long acting drug

         d.  Mixed acting drug


4.      The undesirable effects of the antibiotics are listed below.  Match them

              1.  Tetracycline                                             a.  Gray-baby syndrome

              2.  Streptomycin                                                       b.  Discoloration of teeth

              3.  Chloramphenicol                                                 c.  Jaundice

              4.  Rifampicin                                               d.  Obesity

                                                                                    e.  Ototoxicity

         A.  i-b                              B.  i-a               C.  i-e                D  i-a

               ii-e                                  ii-b                   ii-d                     ii-c

               iii-a                                iii-c                   iii-a                    iii-b

               iv-c                                iv-d                   iv-c                    iv-d


5.      Vinblastin and vincristin act by

         a.  Interfering with the synthesis of t-RNA

         b.  Inhibiting the fragmentation of DNA

         c.  Binding to protein

         d.  Incorporating into folic acid metabolism

6.      The causative organism of a disease is given and the drug used for the treatment is

         indicated below.  Match them.

         1.  E.histolytic                                                                a.  Clofazimine

         2.  P.falciparum                                                              b.  Chloramphenicol

         3.  M. leprae                                                                   c.  Emetine

         4.  S.typhil                                                                      d.  Pyremethamine

         5.  Trichunella spiralis                                                   e.  Mebendazole

         A.  1-a                  B. 1-c             C.  1-e               D.  1-a

               2-b                      2- d                  2-d                     2-c

               3- c                     3-b                   3-c                     3-b

               4-d                      4-a                   4-b                     4-e

               5-e                      5-e                   5-a                     5-d


7.      Match the following antibiotics to their MAO correctly.

         i.  Ampicillin                                          a.  Inhibiting nucleic acid synthesis

         ii.  Chloramphenicol                              b.  Inhibiting cell wall synthesis

         iii.  Nystatin                                            c.  Inhibiting growth by competitive antagonism

           iv.  Rifampicin                                       d.  Inhibiting protein synthesis

                                                                         e.  Inhibiting cell membrane

         A.  i-a                   B.  i-b             C.  i-b                D.  i- a

               ii-b                       ii-d                  ii- d                   ii- b

               iii-d                      iii-e                 iii-a                   iii-c

               iv-e                      iv-a                  iv-e                   iv-d


8.      The antibiotic mentioned below is obtained from the organism listed below.

         Match them.

         i.  Neomycin                                                      a.  Streptomyces fradiae

         ii.  Gentamycin                                                  b.  Micromonospora purpurea

         iii.  Bacitracin                                                    c.  Streptomyces tenebrarius

         iv.  Tobramycin                                                 d.  Bacillus subtilis

                                                                                    e. B.polymyxa

         A.  i-a                    B.  i-a                C.   i-a                     D.   i-b

               ii-b                        ii-c                      ii-b                           ii-a

               iii-c                       iii-b                     iii-d                         iii-c

               iv-d                       iv-d                     iv-c                          iv-d


9.      The active metabolite of anti-cancer cyclophosphoramide is

         a.  N-Hydroxy cyclophosphoramide

         b.  N-methyl cyclophosphoramide

         c.  4-hydroxy cyclophosphoramide

         d.  N-Acetyl cyclophosphoramide


10.    Identify one of the cancer chemotherapeutic agents which is an antimetabolite

         a.  Gentamicin                                                    b.  Ampicillin

         c.  Tetracycline                                                  d.  Carbenicillin


11.    For the drugs listed 1-4 mechanism of action is indicated from A-F.

         Match them.

         i.  Vincristine                              a.  Macro cyclic antibiotic which inhibits DNA

                                                                  dependent RNA polymers

         ii.  Streptomycin                         b.  An antibiotic containing nitro group which

                                                                   binds to 50S ribosomal subunit.

         iii.  Chloramphenicol                  c.  A dimeric indole alkaloid which binds avidly to tubulin,

                                                                                  a class of protein that forms the mitotic spindle

           iv.  Rifampicin                            d.  An amino glycoside antibiotic, capable of

                                                                  binding to 30S ribosomal subunit

                                                             e.  A quinoline alkaloid which inhibits

                                                                  the growth of plasmodium vivax

         A.  i- d                    B.   i-c                  C.  i-d               D.   i-c

               ii-c                          ii-d                       ii-c                       ii-d

               iii-b                        iii-b                       iii-a                      iii-b

               iv-a                         iv-a                       iv-b                      iv-a

12.    One of the following drugs interferes with cellular metabolism, especially the

         synthesis of mycolic acid. Identify

         a.  Chloramphenicol                                                      b.  Pyrazinamide

         c.  Isonicotinic acid hydrazide                          d.  Nicotinamide


13.    Benzathine penicillin is

         a.  An equimolecular composition of amoxicillin + N, N dibenzyl ethylene diamine

         b.  A molecular complexation of benzyl penicillin+ N, N dibenzyl ethylene diamine

         c.  A molecular complexation of cloxacillin + ethylene diamine

         d.  Equimolecular proportion of amoxycillin + ethylene diamine


14.    Smallpox vaccine contains

         a.  Living virus vaccinia                                                b.  Living culture of B.C.G

         c.  Attenuated Stephylococcus                          d.  Living virus of hepatitis


15.    One of the following drug is alkylating agent, identify

         a.  Cyclophosphoramide                                                b.  Methotrexate

         c.  Allopurinol                                                   d.  Rifampicin


16.    The mechanism of action of antiviral drugs is given .Match with closely associated

         drug given below

         1.  Inhibit an early step in viral                         a.  Amantadine

              replication viral uncoated                            b.  Methisone

                                                                                    c.  Rifampicin

         2.  Irreversible inactivation of                          d.  Acyclovir

              DNA polymerase                                                                             

         A.  1-a                            B.  1-b                         C.  1-b                         D.  1-d

               2-d                                  2-d                               2-c                               2-a

17.    The most common causative agent of bacterial pneumonia is

         a.  Staphylococcus aureus                                 b.  E.coli

         c.  S.pneumoniae                                               d.  Mycoplasma pneumoniae

18.    One of the organisms mentioned below is used as a biological indicator in I.P for

         ethylene oxide sterilization.choose the correct one

         a.  Staphylococcus aureus                                 b.  Spores of bacillus subtillis

         c.  Bacillus pumilus                                           d.  Spores of bacillus cereus


19.    Which one of the following is an antifungal polyene macrolide antibiotic with

         several conjugated double bonds, an internal ester, a free carboxyl group and a

         glycoside chain with primary amino group?

         a.  Streptomycin                                                b.  Echinocandins

         c.  Rifamycin                                                     d.  Amphotericin-B


20.    One of the following antiviral agents exhibit the greatest selective toxicity for the

         invading virus

         a.  Amantadine                                                  b.  Zidovudine

         c.  Idoxuridine                                                   d.  Propranolol


21.    Plasmodial resistance of chloroquine is due to

         a.  Induction of inactivating enzyme

         b.  Change in receptor structure

         c.  Increase in the activity of DNA repair mechanism

         d.  Decreased carrier mediated drug transport


22.    The mechanism of action for dactinomycin is

         a.  Inhibits topoisomerase II

         b.  Cross link DNA

         c.  Inhibits the function of microtubules

         d.  Inhibits DNA polymerase.


23.    Varicella zoster is the causative organism for

         a.  Smallpox                                                       b.  Dermatophytosis

         c.  Herpes                                                           c.  Infectious mononucleosis


24.    The drug regimen useful in the treatment of both intestinal and extra-intestinal

         symptoms of amoebiasis given orally is

         a.  Diloxamide and lodoquinol                          b.  Paramomycin and mefloquine

         c.  Metronidazole and diloxanide                     d.  Chloroquine alone


25.    The mechanism of antiparasitic action of mebendazole and thiabendazole involves

         a.  Stimulation of acetylcholine receptor at neuromuscular junction

         b.  Inhibition of dihydrofolate reductase

         c.  Interference with microtubule synthesis and assembly

         d.  Block thiamine transport







Name:                                                                         Sub  : Pharmacology

ID      :                                                                        Topic:Chemotherapy

Test   : 3                                                                     Date  :

1.      Which of the following is a gonadotropin releasing hormone?

         a.  Formestane                                                   b.  Tamoxifen

         c.  Goserelin                                                      d.  Flutamide


2.      Fosfestrol is indicated for

         a.  Breast cancer                                                b.  Prostatic cancer

       c.  Leukemia                                                        d.  Lymphoma


3.      Which of the following is useful for premenopausal breast cancer?

         a.  Tamoxifen                                                    b.  Flutamide

         c.  Megestrol                                                      d.  Goserelin

4.      Which of the following drug has cardio protective activity?

         a.  Flutamide                                                      b.  Tamoxifen

         c.  Lomustine                                                     d.  Vincristine


5.      The adrenal hormone synthesis inhibitor is

         a.  Trilostane                                                      b.  Flutamide

         c.  Formestane                                                   d.  Fosfestrol


6.      Which of the following is a monoclonal antibiotic?

         a.  Mitotane                                                       b.  Rituximab

         c.  Crisantaspase                                                            d.  Amscarine


7.      A.  Which of the following is a DNA polymerase inhibitor?

         a.  Doxorubicin                                                  b.  Flutamide

         c.  Methotrexate                                                d.  Actinomycin

         B.  It is a

         a.  Anthracycline antibiotic                               b.  Pyrimidine analogue

         c.  Hormone                                                       d.  Purine analogue


8.      Match the following.

         DRUG                                                                CLASS           

         a.  Zidovudine                                                    i.  Adamantine derivative

         b.  Ritonavir                                                       ii.  NNRTI

         c.  Nevirapine                                                    iii.  NRTI

         d.  Amantadine                                                  iv.  Protease inhibitor

         A.   a-1                           B.  a-2                         C.  a-3                         D.  a-2

                b-2                                 b-4                               b-4                              b-3

                c-3                                 c-3                               c-2                               c-4

                d-4                                 d-1                               d-1                               d-1


9.      Steven-johnson syndrome is caused by

         a.  Zidovudine                                                    b.  Sulphamathoxazole

         c.  Efavirenz                                                      d.  Didanosine

10.    Match the following.

            DRUG                                                             ANALOGUE          

a.  Didanosine                                                    i.  Deoxyadenosine

         b.  Stavudine                                                      ii.  Cytosine

         c.  Abacavir                                                       iii.  Thymidine

         d.  Zalcitabine                                                    iv.  Guanosine

         A.  a-2                            B.  a-2                         C.  a-4                         D.  a-1

               b-1                                 b-3                                b-1                               b-3

               c-3                                 c-4                                c-3                               c-4

               d-4                                 d-1                                d-2                               d-2

11.    Highly active anti retroviral therapy regimen includes

         P.  Two nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor and one non-nucleoside reverse

              transcriptase inhibitor

         Q.  One nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor and two non-nucleoside reverse

               transcriptase inhibitor

         R.  Two nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor and two non-nucleoside reverse

               transcriptase inhibitor

         S.  Two nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor and one protease inhibitor

         a.  Q, S                           b.  R, S                        c.  P, Q                        d.  P, R


12.    i.  Which of the following is main unwanted effects Zidovudine?

              a.  Anorexia                                                  b.  Anaemia

              c.  Neutropenia                                             d.  Hypertension

         ii.  The above effects can be elevated by

              a.  Erythromycin                                           b.  Epoetin

              c.  Apotinin                                                   d.  Molgramostin

13.    Which of the following is used to prevent mother-to-baby transmission of HIV


         a.  Efavirenz                                                      b.  Zidovudine

         c.  Ritonavir                                                       d.  Nevirapine

14.    Which of the following antiviral drug may cause insulin resistance?

         a.  Zidovudine                                                    b.  Efavirenz

         c.  Ritonavir                                                       d.  Abacavir

15.    Which of the following antiviral drug may cause buffalo humps?

         a.  Stavudine                                                      b.  Zalcitabine

         c.  Nevirapine                                                    d.  Indinavir

16.    In which of the following clinical situations, prophylactic antibiotic are indicated?

         a.  Treatment of mother to protect the fetus in case of an HIV-infected, pregnant


         b.  To the individual who are in close contact with infected patient

         c.  In patient with a history of heart disease

         d.  All the above

17.    Which of the following statement is wrong?

         a.  Clavulanic  acid alone is nearly devoid of antibacterial activity

         b.  Hydrolysis of the v-lactam ring, by v-lactamase

         c.  v-lactamase inhibitors are formulated with v-lactamase sensitive antibiotics

         d.  v-lactamase inhibitors are combined with v-lactamase resistant antibiotics

18.    Sulfonamides increase risk of neonatal kernicterus because they

         a.  Diminish the production of plasma albumin

         b.  Increase the turn over of red blood cells

         c.  Inhibit the metabolism of bilirubin

         d.  Complete for bilirubin binding site on plasma albumin

19.    Nephrotoxity is the important toxicity of sulphonamide due to acetylated product.

         Pick the correct option.

         P.  It is devoid of antibacterial activity

         Q.  Possess potential toxic effects

         R.  Acetylation can be prevented by using urinary acidifies

         S.  Acetylated products are insoluble at alkaline PH

         a.  P,Q                            b.  R, S                        c.  Q, S                        d.  P, S

20.    Drug used against penicillinase producing Staphylococcus aureus is

         a.  Piperacillin-tazobactum                               b.  Amoxicillin-clavulanate

         c.  Naficillin                                                      d.  All the above

21.    Match the following.

         1.  Clofazimine                                      P.  It may be administered once per day for

                                                                             the treatment of urinary tract infection

         2.  Itraconazole                                      Q.  It may cause pink to brown skin

                                                                             pigmentation with in a few weeks of

                                                                             initiation of therapy

         3.  Lometoxacin                                     R.  Co-administration with astemizole or

                                                                              Terfenadine may lead to life -

                                                                              threatening cardiac dysarrythmias

          4.  Neomycin                                        S.  Very toxic on parenteral administration

         A. 1-Q                            B. 1-R                         C. 1-S                          D.  1-Q

              2-R                                 2-Q                              2-P                               2-R

             3-P                                  3-S                               3-R                              3-S

             4-S                                  4-P                               4-Q                              4-P

22.    All of the following drugs are appropriate therapies for a lower urinary tract

         infection owing to Pseudomonas aeuroginosa except

         a.  Norfloxacin                                                   b.  Septran

         c.  Ciprofloxacin                                                            d.  Methenamine mandelate

23.    Which of the following has broad spectrum antimicrobial property among the

         amino glycosides?

         a.  Neomycin                                                     b.  Tobramycin

         c.  Kanamycin                                                    d.  Amikacin

24.    Which of the following drugs should be reserved for hospital acquired Gram

         negative infections and multi-drug resistance in tuberculosis

         a.  Neomycin                                                     b.  Amikacin

         c.  Gentamycin                                                  d.  Tyrothricin

25.    Among the following amino glycosides ,antibiotics which is used for gut

         sterilization prior to surgical procedures

         a. Neomycin                                                      b.  Paromomycin

         c.  Both a and b                                                  d.  Amikacin

26.    Linezolide is oxazolidinone derivative. Pick the correct option.

         a.  It is active against methicillin resistant S.aureus (MRSA)

         b.  It is used to treat vancomycin resistant Enterococcus faecium (VREF)

         c.  The drug is MAO inhibitor

         d.  All the above

27.    "Red man syndrome" is associated with

         a. Vancomycin                                                   b.  Bacitracin

         c.  Dactomycin                                                  d.  None of the above

28.    A 25 year old male AIDS patient has fever of 120 F and complains of severe

         headaches during the past week. Staining of his CSF with India ink reveals

         Cryptococcus neoformans .The patient is admitted to the hospital and treated with

         a.  Intravenous amphotercin B plus flocytosis

         b.  Oral ketoconazole

         c.  Intrathecal amphotericin B

         d.  IV administration of ketocanazole

29.    A heart transplant person is being maintained by immunosuppressant cyclosporine.

         He develops a candida infection and is treated with ketoconazole .why is this poor


         a.  Ketoconazole is not effective against candida

         b.  Ketoconazole reacts with cyclosporine to inactivate it

         c.  Ketoconazole inhibits cytochrome P450 enzymes that inactives cyclosporine

         d.  Ketoconazole causes gynacomastia and decreases libido in male

30.    Which of the following drug is recommended for the treatment of severe multidrug

         resistant falciparum malaria?

         a.  Artemisinin                                                   b.  Chloroquine

         c.  Primaquine                                                   d.  Quinine

31.    Which one of the following drugs is likely to cause fatigue, backpain and darkened


         a.  Pyrimethamine                                             b.  Artemisinin

         c.  Primaquine                                                   d.  Chloroquine

32.    Which of the following drug is used to prevent organ graft and can cause


         a.  Azathioprine                                                             b.  Basiliximab

         c.  Mycophenolate mofetil                                d.  Sirolimus

33.    Which of the following drugs specifically inhibit calcineurin in the activated


         a.  Daclizumap                                                   b.  Tacrolimus

         c.  Sirolimus                                                      d.  Prednisone

34.    A 23 years old female suffering from grandmal epilepsy is being controlled with       phenytoin .she is a candidate for a renal transplant. Which agent might exacerbate the seizures in this patient?

         a.  Mycophenolate mofetil                                            b.  Sirolimus

         c.  Cyclosporine                                                             d.  Tacroliomus



Name:                                                                         Sub  : Pharmacology

ID      :                                                                        Topic:ANS, Antipsychotics

Test   : 4                                                                      Date  :

1.      The parasympathetic neurotransmitter at sweat gland is

         a.  Adrenaline                                                    b.  Noradrenaline

         c.  Acetylcholine                                               d.  None of the above


2.      The sympathetic neurotransmitter at sweat gland is

         a.  Noradrenalin                                                 b.  Adrenaline

         c.  Acetylcholine                                               d.  Nitric oxide


3.      The sympathetic innervation is only present at

         a.  Salivary glands                                             b.  Blood vessels

         c.  Sweat glands                                                             d.  Erectile tissue


4.      The sympathetic and Para sympathetic system have similar action at

         a.  Blood vessel                                                 b.  Sweat gland

         c.  Heart                                                             d.  Salivary gland


5.      The sympathetic system has which of the following effects on heart

         P.  Positive chronotropic effect                        Q.  Cardiac inhibition

         R.  Conduction block                                         S.  Positive inotropic effect

         a.  Q, R                           b.  P, S                         c.  Q, P                        d.  S, R


6.      The receptor present at autonomic ganglia is

         a.  Muscarinic Ach receptor                              b.  Nicotinic Ach receptor

         c.  a-adrenergic receptor                                   d.  v-adrenergic receptor


7.      The parasympathetic system is also known as

         a.  Cranial-sacral out flow                                 b.  Thoraco-lumbar out flow

         c.  Fight or flight responds                                d.  Rest and digest response

         a.  P, R                           b.  Q, S                        c.  Q, R                        d.  P, S


8.      Nicotinic Ach receptors are mainly located at

         P.  Heart                                                             Q.  Neuromuscular junction

         R.  Autonomic ganglia                                      S.  Eye

         a.  R, S                           b.  P, Q                        c.  Q, R                        d.  Q, S


9.      i.   Which of the following is a nicotinic Ach receptor antagonist.

         a.  Lobeline                                                        b.  Tubocurarine

         c.  Atropine                                                        d.  Gallamine

ii.   The drug is used as

         a.  Muscle relaxant                                            b.  Anti-ulcer agent

         c.  Antispasmodic                                              d.  Anti-diabetic

10.    i.  Pirenzepine is a

         a.  M1-agonist                                                   b.  M1-antagonist

         c.  M2-agonist                                                   d.  M2-antagonist

         ii.  It is indicated for

         a.  Heart block                                                   b.  Glaucoma

         c.  Myasthenia gravis                                        d.  Peptic ulcer


11.    The non-selective muscarinic Ach receptor antagonist is

         a.  Atropine                                                        b.  Pirenzepine

         c.  Gallamine                                                     d.  Pancuronium


12.    Which of the following can be used as adjunct for anesthesia?

         a.  Ipratropium                                                   b.  Pirenzepine

         c.  Atropine                                                        d.  Tropicamide


13.    Which of the following can be used for motion sickness?

         a.  Atropine                                                        b.  Scopolamine

         c.  Carbachol                                                      d.  Tropicamide


14.    The drug which is not indicated for glaucoma is

         a.  Pilocarpine                                                    b.  Acetazolamide

         c.  Tropicamide                                                 d.  Ecothiopate


15.    i.  Which of the following is a ganglionic blocking drug?

         a.  Trimethaphan                                               b.  Atracurium

         c.  Lobeline                                                        d.  Suxamethonium

ii.  It is used to

         a.  Decrease blood pressure during surgery.

         b.  Decrease bronchial and salivary secretions during anaesthesia.

         c.  Produce muscle relaxation.                          d. Treat peptic ulcer.


16.    Which of the following is a depolarizing neuromuscular blockers?

         a.  Tubocurarine                                                b.  Suxamethonium   

         c.  Pancuronium                                                 d.  Atracurium


17.    The drug which inhibits vesicular transport of Ach is

         a.  Hemicholinium                                             b.  Triethyl choline

         c.  Botulinium toxin                                          d.  Vesamicol


18.    Which of the following may produce muscle paralysis?

         a.  Atropine                                                        b.  Suxamethonium

         c.  Botulinium toxin                                          d.  Pancuronium


19.    The drug which inhibits choline uptake is

         a.  Vesamicol                                                     b.  Neostigmine

         c.  Bungarotoxin                                                            d.  Hemecholenium

20.    Which of the following is an irreversible Ach esterase inhibitor?

         a.  Neostigmine                                                 b.  Physostigmine

         c.  Dyflos                                                           d.  Pyridostigmine


21.    The antidote used for organophosphate poisoning

         a.  Pralidoxime                                                  b.  Procaine

         c.  Pancuronium                                                 d.  Naloxone


22.    The drug used for atropine poisoning

         a.  Flumazenil                                                    b.  Pralidoxime

         c.  Physostigmine                                              d.  Trimethaphan


23.    Which of the following is a short acting anticholinesterase?

         a.  Neostigmine                                                 b.  Edrophonium

         c.  Ecothiopate                                                   d.  Pyridostigmine


24.    The drug indicated for myasthenia gravis

         a.  Atropine                                                        b.  Pilocarpine

         c.  Neostigmine                                                 d.  Suxamethonium


25.    Which of the following is a selective a1 blocker?

         a.  Doxazocine                                                   b.  Phenylephrine

         c.  Dobutamine                                                  d.  Atenolol


26.    The selective a2 blocker is

         a.  Phenylephrine                                               b.  Salbutmol

         c.  Yohimbine                                                    d.  Atenolol


27.    The selective a1 agonist is

         a.  Metoprolol                                                    b.  Methoxamine

         c.  Salbutamol                                                    d.  Prazosin


28.    The selective v2 agonist is

         a.  Phenylephrine                                               b.  Salbutamol

         c.  Dobutamine                                                  d.  Atenolol


29.    The selective a2 agonist is

         a.  Prazosin                                                        b.  Clonidine

         c.  Metoprolol                                                    d.  Terbutaline


30.    The selective v1 blocker is

         a.  Propranolol                                                   b.  Oxprenolol

         c.  Metoprolol                                                    d.  Salbutamol




31.    The non selective a- blocker is

         a.  Prazosin                                                        b.  Yohimbine

         c.  Propranolol                                                   d.  Phenoxy benzamine


32.    The non selective v-blockers is 

         a.  Metoprolol                                                    b.  Atenolol

         c.  Propranolol                                                   d.  Acebutolol


33.    Which of the following is not indicated for hypertension?

         a.  Isoprenaline                                                  b.  clonidine

         c.  Atenolol                                                        d.  Prazosin


34.    The drug indicated for pheochromocytoma is

         a.  Ergotamine                                                   b.  Phenoxybenzamine

         c.  Adrenaline                                                    d.  Salbutamol


35.    The drug used for anaphylactic shock is

         a.  Phenoxybenzamine                                       b.  Clonidine

         c.  Metoprolol                                                    d.  Adrenaline


36.    Which one is involved in the metabolism of buspirone?

         a.  CYP-3A4                                                       b.  CYP-2A­4

               c.  CYP-4A3                                                       d.  CYP-4A2


37.    Which antiepileptic drug has the least effect on the efficacy of oral contraceptives?

         a.   Phenytoin                                                     b.  Gabapentin

         c.  Lamotrazine                                                  d.  Both b and c


38.    Which of the following drugs could cause hyponatremia?

         a.  Carbamazepine                                             b.  Felbamate

         c.  Oxcarbazepine                                              d.  a, c, and d


39.    Which of the following antiepileptic agent is used in treatment of cardic arrythmiasis?

         a.  Carbamazepine                                             b.  Phenytoin

         c.  Ethosuximide                                                            d.  Clonazepam


 40.   What is the mechanism of action of diphenyl hydantoin?

         a.  Blocking of Na+ channel                              b.  Opening of Na+ channel

         c.  Blocking of K+ channel                               d.  Opening of K+ channel









Name:                                                                         Sub  : Pharmacology

ID      :                                                                        Topic:Drugs acting on Parkinson's

 desease, ANS, Chemotherapy

Test   : 5                                                                      Date  :

1.      The amount of decrease dopamine in nerve tracts is visualized by which method.

         a.  Positron absorption tomography                  b.  Positron emission tomography

         c.  Positron absorption spectroscopy                d.  Radio immuno assay


2.      Which one of the following combinations of anti-parkinsonism drugs is an

appropriate therapy?

         a.  Amantiadine, carbidopa, and entacapone    b.  Levodopa, carbidopa, entacapone

         c.  Pergolide, carbidopa, entacapone                d.  Ropinirole, selegiline, entacapone


3.      Peripheral adverse effects of levodopa, including nausea, hypotension and cardiac arrhythmiasis can be diminished by including which of the following drugs in the therapy?

         a.  Amantidine                                                   b.  Bromocriptine

         c.  Carbidopa                                                     d.  Entacapone


4.      Which of the following anti-parkinson drugs may cause peripheral vasospasm?

         a.  Amantiadine                                                 b.  Bromocryptine

         c.  Carbidopa                                                     d.  Entacapone


5.      Modest improvement in the memory of patients with alzheimer disease may occur with drugs that increase transmission at which of the following receptors?

         a.  Adrenergic                                                    b.  Cholinergic

         c.  Dopaminergic                                               d.  GABAargic


6.      Which of the following drug is a catechol-o-methyl transferase (COMT)  inhibitor and has reports of fatal liver toxicity with it?

         a.  Tolcapone                                                     b.  Entacapone

         c.  Pergolide                                                       d.  Selegiline


7.      Levodopa is associated with which of the following problems?

         a.  Gastrointestinal side effects.                                    b.  Involuntary movements.

         c.  Decline in efficacy after 3-5 years.              d.  All the above


8.      Amantidine has which of the following advantages over levodopa?

         a.  More rapid relief over symptoms.               b.  Higher success rate.

         c.  Better long term effect.                                d.  None of the above.




9.      Which drug is a non-ergot dopamine agonist and has a side effect profile different from the rest of the dopaminergic agents?

         a.  Pergolide                                                       b.  Levodopa/carbidopa

         c.  Ropinirole                                                     d.  Selegiline


10.    Promipexole is used as adjuvant to carbidopa and levodopa therapy. Pick the correct option.

         P.  It prevents decarboxylation of levodopa.    Q.  It is non-ergot dopamine agonist.

         R.  It decreases dose of levodopa.                     S.  They prevent orthostatic hypotension.

         a.  Q, R               b.  Q, S                        c.  P, R            d.  P, S


11.    Which of the following ergot alkaloid derivative is used in the treatment of parkinsonism?

         a.  Promipexole                                                 b.  Lysuride

         c.  Selegiline                                                      d.  Amantidine


12.    Amantadine is an antiviral drug used in treatment of parkinsonism. Pick the wrong option.

         a.  Aamntadine is less efficient than levodopa.

         b.  Amantadine decreases reuptake of dopamine.

         c.  It does not cause psychosis.

         d.  If dopamine release is maximum amantadine has no effect on parkinsonism.


13.    Which of the following cholinesterase inhibitors is used in the treatment of

alzheimer's disease?

         a.  Physostigmine                                              b.  Rivastigmine

         c.  Neostigmine                                                 d.  None of the above


14.    Pyridoxine should not be used along with levodopa.

         a.  Pyridoxine accelerates decarboxylase.        b.  It inhibits decarboxylase.

         c.  It accelerate dehydrogenase                         d.  None of the above


15.    Toxic effect of L-dopa can be reversed by administration of

         a.  Folic acid                                                      b.  Pyridoxine

         c.  Tocopherol                                                    d.  Thiamine


16.    Which of the following is both a and v blockers

         a.  Pindolol                                                        b.  Terbutaline

         c.  Labitolol                                                       d.  Prazosin


17.    The main unwanted effect of selective v1-agonist is

         a.  Tremor                                                          b.  Asthma

         c.  Hypertension                                                d.  Nausea




18.    Among the following which are cholinesterase reactivators?

         a.  Pralidoxime                                                  b.  Diacetylmonoxime (DAM)

         c.  Obidoxime chloride                                      d.  All of he above


19.    Among the following drugs which are tocolytics?

         a.  Atosiban                                                        b.  Ritodrine

         c.  Nefidipine                                                     d.  All the above


20.    What is the function of tocolytics?

         a.  Muscle relaxants                                          b.  Uterine relaxants

         c.  Both a and b                                                  d.  None of the above


21.    What is the storage site for adrenaline?

         a.  Adrenal medulla                                           b.  Autonomic ganglia

         c.   Brain                                                            d.  All the above


22.    Which of the following hormone is secreted by adrenal medulla?

          a.  Nor adrenaline                                             b.  Adrenaline

          c.  Phenyl amine                                               d.  Dopamine


23.    Which of the following amino acid is responsible for synthesis of Noradrenaline?

        a.  Alanine                                                         b.  Glycine

         c.  Histidine                                                       d.  Tyrosine


24.    Which of the following is the synthetic catecholamine?

         a.  Dopamine                                                     b.  Noradrenaline

         c.  DOPA                                                            d.  Isoprenaline


25.    Which of the following is the non catecholamine?

         a.  Adrenaline                                                    b.  Ephedrine

         c.  Isoprenaline                                                  d.  None of the above


26.    What is the action of adrenaline on eye?

         a.  Mydriasis                                                      b.  Miosis

         c.  Glaucoma                                                      d.  None of the above


27.    Which of the following receptor is mainly stimulated by terbutamine?

         a.  a1                                                                   b.  a2

c.  v1                                                                   d.  v2


28.    Which of the following effects can be seen upon  stimulation of  M1-receptor

         a.  Gastric ulceration                                         b.  Muscle contraction

c.  Pupil dilation                                                            d.  Bradycardia




29.    Which of the following effects can be seen upon stimulation of M2 receptor

         a.  Gastric ulceration                                         b.  Muscle contraction

         c.  Pupil dilation                                                            d.  Bradycardia


30.    What type of neuro transmitter is released at NMJ?

         a.  Acetylcholine                                               b.  nor-adrenaline

         c.  Adrenaline                                                    d.  Serotonin


31.    Sulfonamides are structure analogues of

         a.  Gama amino butyric acid                                         b.  P-amino butyric acid

         c.  P-amino benzoic acid                                               d.  Gama amino benzoic acid


32.      Sulfonamides act by

a. Inhibition of dihydrofolate reductase

b. Inhibition of  synthesis of PABA

c. Inhibition of dihydropteorate synthase

         d. None of the above


33.    Which of the following is an unwanted effect of sulfonamides?

a.  Cyanosis                                                       b.  Vitamin-B deficiency

         c.  Ketosis                                                          d.  Anaphylactic shock


34.    Which of the following is an unwanted effect of sulfonamides due to altered excretion?

         a.  Deafness                                                       b.  Anemia

         c.  Crystalluria                                                   d.  Diarrhoea


35.    Co-trimoxazole  is a combination of

         a. Sulfisoxazole and trimethoprim

         b. Sulfanilamide and trimethoprim

         c. Sulfanilamide and sulfisoxozole

         d. Sulfamethoxazole and trimethoprim

















Name:                                                             Sub  : Pharmacology

ID      :                                                            Topic:Blood, Drugs on Renal System

Test   : 6                                                         Date  :


1.      The synthetic vitamin-k is

         a.  Phytonadione                                                            b.  Menaquinone

         c.  Menadione                                                    d.  None of the above


2.      Which of the following prostaglandins is natural anti-platelet agent?

         a.  Prostacyclin                                                  b.  Thromboxyin

         c.  Prostaglandin-E                                            d.  All the above


3.      Venous thrombosis is also known as

         a.  Green thrombosis                                         b.  Red thrombosis

         c.  Blue thrombosis                                           d.  White thrombosis

4.      Arterial thrombosis is also known as

         a.  Green thrombosis                                         b.  Red thrombosis

         c.  Blue thrombosis                                           d.  White thrombosis


5.      What is the general cause of thrombosis?

         a.  During treatment with oral contraceptive.   b.  Atherosclerosis

         c.  In atrial fibrillation.                                      d.  All the above

6.      What is the principle bioassay of heparin on cattle?

         a.  Ability to prevent clotting.                           b.  Ability to decrease clotting.

         c.  Increase clotting time.                                  d.  Decrease clotting time.

         a.  P, Q                           b.  P, R                        c.  Q, R                        d.  P, S


7.      What are the anti-thrombotic factors?

         a.  Prostaglandin I2                                            b.  Nitric oxide

         c.  Tissue plasminogen                                      d.  All the above


8.      What is the action of thrombomodulin?

         a.  Inactivation of V and VII factors.                b.  Inactivation of IV and II factors.

         c.  Inactivation of V factors.                             d.  Inactivation of IX factors.

9.      Compared to unfractionated heparin. Low molecular weight heparins have.

         a.  Preferential binding affinity to factor Xa relative to IIa (thrombin)

         b.  Longer duration of action.

         c.  Have a predictable anticonvulsant effect.

         d.  All the above.


10.    A glycosaminoglycan is found in the granules of mast cells.

         i.  An anticoagulant glycosaminoglycan is

         a.  Warfarin                                                       b.  Heparin

         c.  Vitamin K                                                     d.  Aspirin

         ii.  The anticoagulant selected above acts by

         a.  Lowering the affinity for free plasminogen.          

         b.  Degrading fibrin and fibrinogen.

         c.  Binding to anti-thrombin III.

         d.  Antagonizing co-factor functions of vitamin-K

11.    Sweet clover disease is related to

         a.  Coumarin                                                      b.  Ergot         

         c.  Digitalis                                                        d.  Heparin

12.    What is the mechanism of action of heparin?

         a.  It binds to angiotensin III                             b.  It binds to angiotensin II

         c.  It binds to angiotensin I                                d.  None of the above.


13.    A business executive, while playing tennis complained of chest pain and was brought to emergency room. He has history of mild hypertension and elevated blood cholesterol. ECG changes confirmed the diagnosis of myocardial infarction. The decision is made to open his occluded artery by using thrombolytic agent and also use aspirin later.

         i.  The thrombolytic agent used is

         a.  Heparine                                                       b.  Warfarin

         c.  Anistreplase                                                  d.  Vitamin-K

         ii.  Mechanism of action of aspirin is

         a.  Inhibits vitamin-K absorption                      b.  Anti-thrombin activity

         c.  Inhibits mechanism of heparin                     d.  Inhibits platelet aggregation.

         iii.  Mechanism of action of anti-thrombic agent is

         a.  Conversion of plasminogen to plasmin.      b.  Activation of clotting factor.

         c.  Inhibits platelet function.                             d.  Agonist of vitamin-K


14.    What happens when warfarin is administered with phenyl butazone?

         a.  Displaces warfarin from protein binding and increases bleeding.

         b.  Stimulates hepatic metabolism and inhibits bleeding.

         c.  Displaces warfarin from protein binding and decreases bleeding.

         d.  All the above.


15.    Which of the following is used as heparin substitute to treat deep vein thrombosis?

         a.  Danaparoid                                                   b.  Biviluridin

         c.  Streptokinase                                                            d.  Both a and c

16.    A 60 year old man is diagnosed with deep-vein thrombosis. The patient was treated

        with a bolus of heparin and a heparin drip was started. One hour later, he was

        bleeding profusely from the intravenous site. The heparin therapy was suspended,

        but the bleeding continued. Protamine was administered intravenously and the

        bleeding resolved. The protamine acts by

        a.  Degrade the heparin

        b.  Inactivates anti-thrombin

        c.  Activates the coagulation cascade.

        d.  Activates tissue-plasminogen activator.

        e.  Ionically combines with heparin.

17.    What is the appropriate temperature to store blood?

         a.  2-6degC                                                             b.  15-25degC

         c.  0degC                                                                d.  8-25degC


18.    Vitamin-B12 abnormalities can be determined by

         a.  Shilling test                                                  b.  Montoux test

         c.  Direct coombs test                                        d.  Indirect coombs test


19.    Direct coombs test is used for identification of

         a.  Haemolytic anemia                                      b.  Parnecious anemia

         c.  Sickel cell anemia                                        d.  Megaloblastic anemia


20.    Among the following, which is the crystalloid plasma expander used in the

         treatment of shock.

         a.  Haemaccel                                                    b.  Normal saline

         c.  Plasma                                                          d.  Macrodex 70

21.    Sclerosing agent used in the treatment of varicose veins is

         a.  Phenol                                                           b.  Vitamin-C

         c.  Tranexamic acid                                           d.  None of the above

22.    Which of the following diuretic is used in a patient with acute or chronic renal

         Failure having creatinine clearance is below 25ml /min?

         a.  Hydrochlorthiazide                                       b.  Butamide

         c.  Furosemide                                                   d.  Ethacrynic acid

23.    Which of the following drug to be prescribed to a patient allergic to Furosemide or

         tolerant to Furosemide?

         a.  Bumetamide                                                 b.  Torsemide

         c.  Ethacrynic acid                                             d.  All the above

24.    Which of the following drugs should be prescribed to a patient allergic to


         a.  Furosemide                                                   b.  Torsemide

         b.  Ethacrynic acid                                             d.  None of the above

25.    What is the side effect of loop diuretics?

         a.  Ototoxicity                                                    b.  Orthostatic hypotension

         c.  Hypokalemia                                                d.  All the above

26.    The route of administration of Mannitol is

         a.  Intravenous                                                   b.  Subcutaneous

         c.  Oral                                                               c.  Intramuscular


27.    The suitable diuretic to be used in a cardiac edema patient

         P.  Mannitol                                                       Q.  Furosemide

         R.  Spironolactone                                             S.  Chlorthiazide

         a.  R, Q                           b.  P,R                         c.  Q,S                         d.  P,S


28.    Which of the following diuretic is used in cerebral oedema?

         a.  Mannitol                                                       b.  Furosemide

         c.  Both a and b                                                  d.  None of the above

29.    Advantage of glycerol over Mannitol as diuretic is

         a.  It is given orally

         b.  Devoid of rebound edema

         c.  It can be used in presence of dehydration and cardiac failure

         d.  All the above

30.    Furosemide is the diuretic, which can be given in cardiac edema. Pick the correct


         P.  It acts at thick ascending limb of loop of henle

         Q.  It acts by stimulation of Na+-K+ 2Cl- symport

         R.  It acts by inhibiting Na+-K+ 2Cl- symport

         S.   It acts by inhibiting Na+-K+ 2Cl- antiport

         a.  P, Q                           b.  R, P                        c.  R, S                        d.  Q, R

31.    Match the following correctly.

            Diuretic                                                          Mode of action

         1.  Acetazolamide                                  P.  Affects osmosis

         2.  Furosemide                                       Q.  Inhibits Na+-K+- 2Cl- symport

         3.  Triamterene                                      R.  Inhibits Na+-H+ exchange

         4.  Mannitol                                           S.  Inhibits the reabsorption of Na+ in

                                                                             mineralocorticoid dependent

                                                                             portion of renal tubule

         a.  1-R                            b.  1-Q                         c.  1-P                          d.  1-S

              2-Q                                 2-S                              2-S                              2-P

             3-S                                  3-P                              3-Q                              3-R

             4-P                                  4-R                              4-R                              4-Q

32.    Match the following.

            Class                                                               Diuretic

         1.  Osmotic diuretic                                           P.  Isosorbide

         2.  Loop diuretic                                                            Q.  Furosemide

         3.  Potassium sparing Diuretic                                      R.  Spironolactone

         4.  Oraganomercurial Diuretic                         S.  Mersalyl theophylline

         a.  1-S                             b.  1-P                         c.  1-Q                         d.  1-P

              2-R                                 2-Q                              2-P                              2-S

              3-Q                                 3-R                              3-S                              3-Q

              4-P                                 4-S                              4-R                              4-R

33.    A group of college students is planning a mountain climbing trip .Which of the

         following drugs would be appropriate for them to take prevent mountain sickness

         a.  Beta-blockers                                                            b.  Anti cholinergic

         c.  Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor                       d.  Loop diuretic

34.    Which of the following drug can be prescribed for hepatic cirrhosis patient?

         a.  Hydrochlorthiazide                                       b.  Spironolactone

         c.  Chlorthiacidone                                            d.  None of the above

35.    Which of the following diuretic should not be prescribed for the patient suffering

         from gout?

         a.  Furosemide                                                   b.  Hydrochlorthiazide

         c.  Spironolactone                                              d.  Triamterene




Name:                                                             Sub  : Pharmacology

ID      :                                                            Topic:General Anaesthetics, Alcohols,


Test   : 7                                                         Date  :

1.      The ideal phase or plane for performing surgery.

         a.  Plane II of stage III                                       b.  Plane III of stage III

         c.  Stage III                                                         d.  Stage IV


2.      In which stage of anaesthesia no surgical procedure is carried out?

         a.  Stage I                                                           b.  Stage II

         c.  Stage III                                                         d.  None of the above


3.      Which of the following opiod analgesic have longer duration of action.

         a.  Morphine                                                      b.  Pethidine

         c.  Buprenorphine                                              d.  Codiene


4.      What are the advantages of preanaesthetic medications?

         a.  To reduce anxiety and apprehension.

         b.  To relieve pre and post-operative pain.

         c.  To suppress  respiratory secretions and to reduce reflex excitability.

         d.  All the above.


5.      Which of the following requires a muscle relaxant?

         a.  Diethyl ether                                                 b.  Halothane

         c.  Benzodiazepines                                           d.  Nitrous oxide


6.      Halogenated anaesthetics may produce malignant hyperthermia in.

         a.  Patients with poor renal function                 b.  Patients allergic to the anaesthetic

         c.  Pregnant women                                           d. Patients with a genetic defect in

                                                                                        the muscle ryanodine receptor

7.      Children with asthma undergoing a surgical procedure are frequently anaesthetized with sevoflurane, because it.

         a.  Rapidly taken up                                           b.  Does not irritate the airway

         c.  Has low metabolic rate                                 d.  Does not undergoes metabolism.


8.      Which one of the following requires administration of a muscle relaxant?

         a.  Benzodiazepines                                           b.  Nitrous oxide

         c.  Diethyl ether                                                 d.  Flurodiazepines

9.      Which of the following is a potent intravenous anaesthetic but a week analgesic?

         a.  Thiopental                                                     b.  Benzodiazepines

         c.  Ketamines                                                     d.  Etomidate             

10.    Which of the following is a potent analgesic but a week anaesthetic?

         a.  Methoxyflurane                                            b.  Succinylcholine

         c.  Diazepam                                                      d.  Nitrous oxide

11.    Malignant hyperthermia caused by halothane is treated with

         a.  Pancuronium                                                 b.  d-tubocurarine

         c.  Suxamethonium                                            d.  Dantroline


12.    Neuroleptic analgesia is produced by the combination of

         P.  Droperidol                                                    Q.  Diazepam

         R.  Fentanyl                                                       S.  Ketamine


13.    According to overton-meyer theory the highly potent anaesthetic will have.

         P.  Low lipid solubility                                     Q.  High lipid solubility

         R.  low minimum alveolar concentration         S.  High minimum alveolar concentration.

         a.  Q, S                           b.  Q, R                        c.  P, R                        d.  P, S


14.    Anterograde amnesia is caused by

         a.  Phenobarbital                                                            b.  diazepam

         c.  Phentobarbital                                              d.  Buspirone


15.    Which of the following benzodiazepine is used as I.V anaesthetic?

         a.  Midazolam                                                    b.  Alprazolam

         c.  Triazolam                                                     d.  Flurazepam


16.    Which of the following causes psychomimetic effect during recovery?

         a.  Thiopental                                                     b.  Propofol

         c.  Ketamine                                                      d.  Midazolam


17.    Barbiturates and diazepam are incompatible with ketamine. What type of incompatibility it is?

         a.  Physical incompatability                              b.  Pharmacological incompatability.

         c.  Chemical incompatability                            d.  None of the above


18.    The inhalation anaesthetic showing fast induction will have.

         a.  High blood: gas partition coefficient.          b.  Low blood: gas partition coefficient.

         c.  High oil: gas partition coefficient.               d.  Low oil: gas partition coefficient.


19.    Match the following.

            Drugs                                                              Duration of action

         P.  Zolpidem                                                      1.  Long acting

         Q.  Nitrazepam                                                  2.  Short acting

         R.  Clonazepam                                                 3.  Medium acting

         S.  Temazepam                                                  4.  Ultra-short acting

         a.  P-1                             b.  P-2                         c.  P-4                          d.  P-2

             Q-2                                  Q-4                              Q-3                              Q-4

             R-3                                  R-3                              R-1                              R-1   

             S-4                                  S-1                              S-2                              S-3


20.    Which of the following anaesthetic should not be used in vitamin-B12 deficient anemic patients?

         a.  Propofol                                                        b.  Nitrous oxide

         c.  Ketamine                                                      d.  Thiopental


21.    Dissociative anaesthesia is caused by.

         a.  Thiopental                                                     b.  Propofol

         c.  Ketamine                                                      d.  Isoflurane

22.    The brief duration of action of an ultra-short acting barbiturates is the result of a

         a.  Slow rate of metabolism in liver.

         b.  Low lipid solubility, resulting in minimal concentration in the brain.

         c.  High degree of binding to plasma proteins.

         d.  Slow rate of excretion by kidneys.

         e.  Rapid rate of distribution from the brain owing to its high liposolubility.


23.    Beverages are prepared by which type of alcohol.

         a.  Ethyl alcohol                                    b.  Propyl alcohol

         c.  Methyl alcohol                                 d.  None of the above

24.    What are the toxic effects of ethyl alcohol on the liver?

         a.  Reduced synthesis of albumin and transferrin.

         b.  Increased synthesis of VLDL

         c.  Glycogen depletion.

         d.  All the above.


25.    Which type of effects are appeared in case of over dose of alcohol in pregnant women?

         a. Teratogenic effect.

         b. Leukemia.

         c. Carcinogenic effect.

         d. All the above.


26.    Alcohol addicted persons are liable to suffer which type of syndromes.

         a.  Korsakoff's psychosis                                  b.  Hallucination

         c.  Suicidal tendencies                                       d. All the above


27.    Sudden withdrawal of alcohol leads to which type of withdrawal syndrome.

         a.  Insomnia                                                       b.  Tremor

         c.  Tremulousness                                              d.  All the above


28.    Which type of anti-epileptic drug is used in the moderate withdrawal syndrome?

         a.  Citrated calcium cynamide                          b.  Carbamazepine

         c.  Disulfiram                                                    d.  Naltrexone


29.    What are the contraindications of disulfiram?

         a. Hepatic diseases                                            b.  Circulatory diseases

         c. Uncontrolled diabetes mellitus                     d.  All the above

30.    What is the chemical name of disulfiram?

         a.  Tetra methylthiuram disulphide                  b.  Tetra ethylthiuram disulphide

        c.  Tetra ethylazouram disulphide                    d.  Tetramethylthiuram sulphide


31.    What is the mechanism of action of disulfiram?

         a. Block the oxidation of aldehydes.                 b. Block the reduction of aldehydes.

         c. Enhances the dopamine beta oxidase                        d. Induces the catecholamine.


32.    Which type pf adverse reactions are produced by using of Disulfiram?

         a. Metallic taste in the mouth.

         b. Acidosis and cramps.

         c. Inhibit the metabolic degradation of warfarin and phenytoin.

         d. All the above

33.    Disulfiram inhibits metabolic degradation of the compounds. Pick the correct option.

         a. Warfarin                                                        b.  Benzodiazepines

         c. Tricyclic anti-depressants                             d.  Theophylline

34.    What is the action of Acamprosate drug?

         P.  An agonist at the GABA                              Q.   An antagonist at the GABA

         R.  An agonist at the NMDA                             S.  An antagonist at the NMDA

         a.  P, Q                           b.  P, S                         c.  P, R                        d.  R, S


35.    What are the drug-drug interactions of ethyl alcohol?

         a. Opioids and methyldopa can cause CNS depression.

         b. Hydralazine can cause orthostatic hypotension.

         c. Isoniazid can cause hepatic toxicity.

         d. All the above

36.    Which of the following anti-platelet used in the treatment of cerebral vascular disease with ischemic heart disease?

         a.  Aspirin                                                          b.  Phenoxifylline

         c.  Dipyridamole                                                            d.  Ti1clopidine


37.    What is the alternative compound of heparin in the case of IV administration.

         a.  Aruin                                                             b.  Russell's vipor venom

         c.  Heparinoids                                                  d.  All the above


38.    Sahlis method is used to calculate dose of

         a.  Iron                                                                b.  Vitamin-B12

         c.  Copper                                                          d.  Vitamin-B6


39.    Russell's vipor venom enhances coagulation by stimulating.

         a.  Throbokinase                                                            b.  Prostaglandins

         c.  Histamines                                                    d.  Thrombocytes

40.    Among the following compounds which one is used in combination with iron.

         a.  Vitamin-C                                                     b.  Copper

         c.  Zinc                                                               d.  All the above



Name:                                                             Sub  : Pharmacology

ID      :                                                            Topic:Anti Psychotics

Test   : 8                                                         Date  :

1.      Which of the following drug does not produce extra pyramidal symptoms?

         a.  Clozapine                                                      b.  Risperidone

         c.  Olanzapine                                                    d.  All the above


2.      Schizophrenia is caused due to

         a.  Increased production of dopamine

         b.  Decreased production of dopamine

         c.  Both a and b

         d.  None of the above


3.      Which of the following the phenothiazine is mostly potent?

         a.  Chloropromazine                                          b.  Haloperidol

         c.  Chlorperazine                                               d.  Trifluperazine


4.      Atypical antipsychotic acts at which dopamine receptor?

         a.  D1                                                                  b.  D2

               c.  D3                                                                  d.  D4


5.      Phenothiazines are used in the treatment except

         a.  Nocturnal enuresis                                        b.  Psychosis

         c.  Parkinsonism                                                            d.  Morning sickness


6.      Pick the correct option regarding neuroleptic analgesia

         a.  Method I.V anaesthesia with combination of neuroleptics and opiod analgesics

         b.  Method I V anaesthesia with combination of neuroleptics and NSAIDS

         c.  This method is used for carrying operative procedures such as eye,bronchoscopy

         d.  Method I.V anaesthesia with combination of neuroleptics and local anaesthetics

         a.  P, R                           b.  Q, R                        c.  R, S                        d.  Q, S


7.      Which of the following drug has been withdrawn from the market because of severe agranulocytosis?

         a.  Clozapine                                                      b.  Risrperidone

         c.  Olazapine                                                      d.  Haloperidol


8.      Name the indole derivative which is used in the management of schizophrenia

         a.  Pimozide                                                       b.  Haloperidol

         c.  Molindone                                                    d.  None of the above


9.      Second generation antipsychotics are effective neuroleptics because

         a.  Provide wide range of safety                                    b.  Helps to improve negative symptoms

         c.  Decrease lactation except risperidone         d.  All the above

10.    Which of the following is MAO-B inhibitor that is used in treatment of


         a.  Meclobemide                                                            b.  Phenelzine

         c.  Selegiline                                                      d.  Tranylcypromine

11.    The tricyclic antidepressants which predominantly nor-adrenaline reuptake inhibitor

         a.  Imipramine                                                   b.  Desipramine

         c.  Doxepine                                                       d.  None of the above


12.    Rama is 42 year old female with history of schizophrenia and diabetes mellitus

         type-2. She has been treated for many years with haloperidol with good response.

         However she has been recently developed lip smacking and tongue chewing.

            i.          What type of adverse effect is Rama experiencing?

                        a. Akathisia                                                     b.  Acute dystonia

                        c. Pseudoparkinsonism                                   d.  Tardive dyskinesia

            ii.         Which of the following medication has been used to treat the adverse effect

                        described in question (i)?

                        a.  Vitamin-E                                      b.  Propranolol

                        c.  Diphenhydramine                          d.  Amantadine

            iii.       Her health care persons want to change her therapy to different

                        antipsychotics. Which one of the following antipsychotics is the best

                        treatment option?

                        a.  Olanzapine                                     b.  Risperidone

                        c.  Quetiapine                                     d.  Fluphenazine

13.    Which of the following neuroleptics has been shown to be a partial agonist at the


         a.  Aripiprazole                                                  b.  Clozapine

         c.  Haloperidol                                                   d.  Risperidone

14.    A 21-year old male has recently begun pimozide therapy for tourette disorder. He is

         brought to the emergency department by his parents. They described that he has

         "different appering tics" than before, such as prolonged contraction of the facial

         muscles. Which being examined he experiences opisthotonus. Which of the

         following drugs would be beneficial in reducing these symptoms?

         a.  Beztropine                                                    b.  Risperidone

         c.  Bromocriptine                                              d.  Levodopa

15.    A 25-year old woman had a long history of depressive symptoms accompanied by

         bodyaches (neuropathic pain).Which of the following drugs might be useful in this


         a.  Fluoxetine                                                     b.  Sertraline

         c.  Mitrazapine                                                  d.  Duloxetine


16.    51-year old women with symptoms of major depression also have narrow-angle

         glaucoma. Which of the following antidepressants should be avoided in this


         a.  Amitriptyline                                                            b.  Seratraline

         c.  Bupropion                                                     d.  Mirtazepine

17.    i. A 55- year old women has following symptoms like increased appetite

          hypersomnia and very sensitive to critinism.Name the type of depression with

                        which women is suffering?

                        a.  Typical depression                        b.  Atypical depression

                        c.  Melancholic depression                d.  None of the above

            ii.         Which of the following is the drug of choice for the treatment of above


                        a.  Citalopram                                     b.  Duloxetine

                        c.  Mitrazapine                                   d.  Doxepin

18.    Which of the following medication would most likely exacerbate a preexisting

         seizure disorder?

         a.  Venlafaxine                                                  b.  Trazodone

         c.  Bupropion                                                     d.  Paronetine

19.    i. Which of the following factors may increase lithium concentration?

                        a.  Caffeine                                         b.  Osmotic diuretics

                        c.  increased fluid intake                  d.  NSAIDs

         ii.Which of the following is the appropriate therapeutic range for lithium in the

                        treatment of mania?

                        a.  0.4-0.6 meq/l                                 b.  0.6-1.5 meq/l

                        c.  1.0-2.0 meq/l                                 d.  0.5-1.2 meq/l

20.    What is the teratogenic effect of lithium?

         a.  Goitre                                                                        b.  Thyrotoxycosis

         c.  Dwarfism                                                      d.  Critinism

21.    What is the main adverse effect of lithium?

         a.  Diabetes mellitus                                    b.  Diabetes insipidus

         c.  Both a and b                                           d.  None of the above

22.    Which is the antiepileptic drug used in the treatment of mania?

         P.  Phenytoin                                               Q.  Carbamazepine

         R.  Ethosuxiamide                                       S.  Valproic acid

         a.  Q, S                        b. P, R                         c.  R, Q                           d.  R, S


23.    'Cheese reaction' with tyramine containing food is observed with

         a. Monoamino uptake inhibitors                       b. MAO inhibitors

         c. SSRI'S                                                           d. All the above


24.    Which of the following medications would be considered first-line monotherapy for

         an acute episode of mania?

         a.  Gabapentin                                                    b.  Lithium

         c. Lamotrazine                                                   d.  Haloperidol

25.    Which of the following mood stabilizers would be most appropriate in a patient

         with liver disease?

         a.  Lithium                                                         b.  Valproic acid

         c.  Carbamazepine                                             d.  None of the above

26.    What is the treatment for panic anxiety disorder?

         a. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors        b. Tricyclic antidepressants

         c. Benzodiazepines                                            d. All the above


27.    What are the adverse effects of lithium?

         a. Patient should be properly hydrated b. Gastric lavage

         c. Heamodialysis                                                           d. All the above


28.    Buspirone is used as anxiolytic drug. Pick the correct option.

         P.  It is a azaspirodecanedione derivative which acts on GABA receptors

         Q. It is a  azaspirodecanedione derivative which acts on 5-HT receptors and

                dopamine receptors

         R.  It has to anticonvulsion, muscle relaxant and sedative property.

         S.  It is used to treat generalized anxiety, comparable to benzodiazepines.

         a.  Q, S                           b.  Q, R                                    c. P, S              d.  P, Q

29.    Which of the following statement is correct?

         a. Benzodiazepines directly open chloride channel

         b. Benzodiazepines show analgesic actions

         c. Clinical improvement of anxiety requires two or four weeks of treatment with


         d. All Benzodiazepines have some sedative effects


30.    Flumazenil is an imidazolo Benzodiazepines. What are the important properties of it.

         P.  Benzodiazepine poisoning

         Q.  It potentiates the action of Benzodiazepines

         R.  It should be administered by I.V infusion, to return to consciousness with 5-15


         S.  The drug does not produce withdrawal symptoms

         a.  P, R                           b.  Q, S                                    c.  R, S            d.  P, Q

 31.   Which of the following Benzodiazepines are preffered in gediatrics?

         a.  Oxazepam, lorazepam                                  b.  Diazepam, chlordiazepam

         c.  Alprazolam, Diazepam                                 d.  Clonazepam, diazepam


32.    Among the following drugs which are prodrugs?

         a.  Prazepam                                                      b.  Estazolam

         c.  Triazolam                                                     d.  Flurazepam


33.    Which of the following short acting benzodiazepines is used as  I.V anaesthetic?

         a. Alprazolam                                                    b.  Triazolam

         c.  Lorazepam                                                    d.  Midazolam


34.    Barbiturates are replaced by benzodiazepines because they produce

         a.  Tolerance                                                      b. Severe withdrawal syndrome

         c. Produce coma at toxic dose                           d. All the above

35.    Benzodiazepine act by

         a. Opening of chloride channels and produces hyperpolarization

         b. Closing of chloride channels and produces hyperpolarization

         c. Opening of chloride channels and produces depolarization

         d. Opening of sodium channel and produce depolarization



Name:                                                             Sub  : Pharmacology

ID      :                                                            Topic:Opioid Analgesics, Antipsychotics,

 Heart Failure

Test   : 9                                                         Date  :


1.      i. Which of the following narcotic is indicated for diarrhea?

                        a.  Fentanyl                                                     b.  Loperamide

                        c.  Buprenorphine                                           d.  Naloxone


ii. The above drug has no analgesic activity because

                        a.  It has less affinity for opioid receptors

                        b.  It does not enter the blood brain barrier

                        c.  It acts as morphine antagonist

                        d.  It acts as partial agonist on u-receptors


2.      Which of the following opioid receptors are responsible for central analgesic action of  opioid?

         a.  u-receptors                                                   b.  d-receptors

         c.  K-receptors                                                   d.  Sigma-receptors


3.      The unwanted effect elicited by opioids acting on u-receptors

         P.  Euphoria                                                       Q.  Dysphoria

         R.  Respiratory depression                                S.  Convulsion

         a.  P, S                            b.  R, S                        c.  P, R                        d.  Q, S


4.      A young man is brought into the emergency room. He is unconscious and he has

         pupillary constriction and depressed respiration. You note needle marks on his legs.

         You administer naltrexone and he awakens. This agent was effective because

         a.  The patient was suffering from an over dose by an opioid

         b.  Naltrexone antagonizes opiates at the receptor site

         c.  Naltrexone is a stimulant of the CNS

         d.  Naltrexone binds to the opiod and inactivates it


5.      Opioids are used as following agents except

         a.  Anti-tussives                                                 b.  Analgesics

         c.  Anti-inflammatory agents                            d.  Anti-diarrhoeals


6.      Which of the following is the active metabolite of diamorphine?

         a.  Codeine                                                         b.  Morphine

         c.  Naltrexone                                                    d.  Pethidine


7.      Straub tail erection in rats is shown by

         a.  Morphine                                                      b.  Naltrexone

         c.  Levallorphan                                                 d.  Loperamide


8.      Which of the following is used to treat opioid over dosage?

         a.  Nalorphine                                                    b.  Naltrexone

         c.  Levallorphan                                                 d.  Loperamide


9.      Which of the following narcotic causes convulsions?

         a.  Pentozocine                                                  b.  Pholcodine

         c.  Pethidine                                                       d.  Fentanyl


10.    Tramadolol is a metabolite of

         a.  Pentazocine                                                   b.  Trazadone

         c.  Levallorphan                                                 d.  Diamorphine


11.    Which of the following narcotics has psychomimetic property?

         a.  Diamorphine                                                 b.  Buprenorphine

         c.  Pentazocine                                                   d.  Pethidine


12.    One of the following opioid peptide released from pro-opiomelanocortin (POMC)

         a.  Somatostatin                                                 b.  Beta-endorphin

         c.  Leu-enkephalin                                             d.  Dynorphin


13.    The tetra-opiod peptide which is having more affinity for mu-receptor?

         a.  Endorphins                                                    b.  Enkephalins

         c.  Dynorphins                                                   d.  All the above


14.    Strong anticholinergic effect limit the antiarrhythmic use of

         a. .Quinidine                                                      b.  Procainamide

         c.  Flecainide                                                     d.  Disopyramide


15.    ClassIA antiarrhythmics do all of the following to the cardiac cell action potential except

         a.  Slow the rate of rise for phase 0 of depolarization

         b.  Delay the fast-channel conductance of sodium ion

         c.  Prolong phase 2 and 3 of repolarization

         d.  Inhibits the slow-channel conductance of calcium ion


16.    All of the following problems represents concerns when patients are started on

         amiodarone except

         a. Extremely long half life                               

b. Need for multiple daily doses

         c. Development of hyperthyroidism/hypothyroidism

         d. Development of pulmonary fibrosis


17.    A 57 year old Rao is being treated for an atrial arrhythmia. He complains of

         headache,dizziness and tinnitus.Which of the following antiarrythmic drugs is most


         a.  Amiodarone                                                  b.  Procainamide

         c.  Propranolol                                                   d.  Quinidine

18.    Which of the following type-III antiarrythmics has been reported as causing

         the torsades de point type of ventricular tachycardia

         a.  Lidocaine                                                      b.  Amiodarone

         c.  Quinidine                                                      d.  Flecainide


19.    A pronounced slowing of phase 0 of the myocardial action potential results in

         a prolongation of either arterial or ventricular depolarization causing QRS complex

         characterized by which class of antiarrythmics?

         a.  Type-I                                                           b.  Type-II

         c.  Type-III                                                         d.  Type-V


20.    A patient receiving a class-1 anti-arrhythmic agents on chronic basis complains of

         fatigue, low-grade fever and joint pain suggestive of systemic lupus erythymatous.

         The patient is most likely to receive.

         a.  Procainamide                                                            b.  Lidocaine

         c.  Propranolol                                                   d.  Quinidine


21.    Which of the following drugs is a class-IV anti-arrhythmic that is primarily

         indicated for the treatment of supraventricular tachyarrhythmias?

         a.  Ibutilide                                                        b.  Mexiletine

         c.  Quinidine                                                      d.  Verapamil


22.    Which of the following drugs is a class-III anti-arrhythmic that is effective in acute

         management of atrial fibrillation or atrial flutter of recent onset?

         a.  Propranolol                                                  b.  Dofetilide

         c.  Metoprolol                                                    d.  Disopyramide


23.    Suppression of arrhythmias resulting from a re-entry focus is mostly likely to occur

         if the drug

         a.  Has vagomimetric effect on the AV node

         b.  Is a v-blocker

         c.  Converts a unidirectional block to a bidirectional block

         d.  Slows conduction through the atria


24.    Which of the following is the exception for the action of quinidine on myocardium?

         a.  Increased refractory period                          b.  Increased force of contraction

         c.  Relaxation effect                                          d.  Blocks vagal effect of heart


25.    Which of the following is the source of digoxin?

         a.  Digitalis purpurea                                         b.  Digitalis lanata

         c.  Both a and b                                                  d.  None of the above


26.    What is the drug of choice in the treatment of Digitalis intoxication?

         a.  Administration of Ca2+                                 b.  Administration of K+

               c.  Administration of quinidine                         d.  Administration of antidote


27.    In HF, which of the following dosage of dopamine would be used to elicit its

         positive inotropic effect.

         a.  2mg/kg/min                                                   b.  5-10mg/kg/min

         c.  10-20mg/kg/min                                            d.  40mg/kg/min


28.    Which of the following is a non-glycoside and non-sympathomimetic positive

         ionotropic agents?

         a.  Dobutamine                                                  b.  Amrinone

         c.  Milrinone                                                      d.  Both b and c


29.    Which of the following have been shown to be effective in acute management of

         digitalis toxicity?

         a.  Cholestyramine resin                                               b.  Fab fragment antibody

         c.  Potassium administration                             d.  All the above


30.    A 58 year old man is admitted to the hospital with acute renal failure and

         pulmonary edema. Which of the following drugs is used in pulmonary edema?

         a.  Digoxin                                                         b.  Dobutamine

         c.  Furosemide                                                   d.  Spironolactone


31.    Which of the following drugs can exacerbate HF?

         a. Ca2+ channel blockers                                  b. Anti-arrhythmic drugs

         c. NSAIDS                                                         d. All the above


32.    The use of angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors (ACEI) in heart failure (HF)

         centers around what pharmacological effects?

         a. Direct reduction in resin levels with a resultant decrease in angiotensin-II and

             aldosterone levels.

         b. Indirect reduction of angiotensin-II and aldosterone levels owing to inhibition of

             angiotensin-converting enzyme

         c. Direct reduction of aldosterone secretion and angiotensin-I production by

             inhibiting angiotensin-converting enzyme

         d. All the above


33.    Compensatory increase in heart rate and renin release that occur in heart failure may

         be alleviated by which of the following drugs

         a.  Milrinone                                                      b.  Digoxin

         c.  Dobutamine                                                  d.  Metaprolol

34.    What is the action of digitalis on refractory period?

         a.  Prolong                                                         b.  Complete inhibition

         c. Suppresses                                                     d.  Not varied


35.    The risk of digitalis toxicity significantly reduced by the concomitant


         a.  Triamterene                                                  b.  Hydrochlorothiazide

         c.  Captopril                                                       d.  None of the above



Name:                                                             Sub  : Pharmacology

ID      :                                                            Topic:Anti Hypertensives, NSAIDs, CNS

 stimulants, Blood

Test   : 10                                                       Date  :


1.      Which of the following is the angiotensin-II receptor antagonist?

         a.  Irbesartan                                                      b.  Carvediol

         c.  Moexipril                                                      d.  Nimodipine


2.      Which of the following antihypertensive drug is used in the diabetic nepropathy and

         diabetes mellitus?

         P.  Enalapril                                                       Q.  Captopril

         R.  Amlodipine                                                  S.  Diltiazem

         a.  P,Q                            b.  R,R                         c.  R,S                         d. Q,S


3.      What is the drug of choice in hypertensive emergencies?

         a.  Minoxidil                                                      b.  Diazoxide

         c.  Reserpine                                                      d.  All the above


4.      What is the drug of choice to treat hypertension in pregnancy?

         a.  Hydralazine                                                  b.  Clonidine

         c.  Captopril                                                       d.  Minoxidil


5.      Which of the following is the drug of choice in emergency hypertension?

         a.  Reserpine                                                      b.  Calcium channel blockers

         c.  v-blockers                                                     d.  Sodium nitropruside


6.      Dry cough is produced by angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors. What is the

         main reason?

         a.  Increased levels of angiotensin-I                 b.  Decreased levels of angiotensin-II

         c.  Decreased levels of bradykinin                    d.  Increased levels of  bradykinin


7.      Match the following.

a.  Esmolol (Brevibloc)             i.v-blocker with intrinsic sympathomimetic activity.

b.  Labetolol (Trandate)            ii. v- blocker that also blocks a-adrenergic receptors

c.  Bisprolol (Zebeta)                iii. v-blocker with an ultra short duration of action.

         d.  Nadolol (Corgard)                iv. A v-blocker with a long  duration of action

                                                                 and nonselective blocking activity.

         e. Pindolol (Visken)                  v. v-blocker with relative cardio selective blocking

         a.  i-e                  b.  i-a               c.  i-c               d.  i-a

             ii-b                      ii-b                  ii-a                  ii-b

             iii-a                     iii-e                 iii-b                             iii-c

             iv-d                     iv-c                  iv-d                 iv-d

             v-c                       v-d                   v-e                   v-e

8.      Match the following

         a.  Clonidine (Catapres)                        i.  Thiocynate intoxication, hypotension and


         b.  Olmestran (Benicar)                                     ii.  Bradycardia, bronchospasm, cardiac


         c.  Nitroprusside (Nipride)                    iii.  Angioedema, cough, hyperkalemia

         d.  Prazosin (Minipress)                        iv.  Rebound hypertension, dry mouth,


         e.  Propranolol (Inderal.                        v.  First dose syncope, postural hypotension


         a.  i-c                       b.  i-a                     c.  i-e                    d.  i-e

              ii-e                           ii-b                        ii-d                        ii-c

              iii-b                          iii-c                       iii-c                       iii-b

              iv-a                          iv-d                        iv-b                      iv-d

              v-d                           v-e                         v-a                        v-a

9.      Given below are the hypotensive agents. Match their mode of action

         i.  Minoxidil                              a.  Alpha adreno receptor antagonist

         ii.  Prazosin                                b.  Decrease sympathetic activity through brain

         iii.  Alpha methyldopa             c.  From alpha methyl norepinephrine

         iv. Clonidine                              d. Direct action on blood vessel

         a.  i-d                     b.  i-c                c.  i-d            d.  i-d

            ii-a                        ii-a                    ii-c                ii-a

              iii-c                     iii-b                   iii-a              iii-b

              iv-b                       iv-d                  iv-b               iv-c

10.    Antihypertensive drug that inhibits the renin angiotensin system is

         a.  Reserpine                                                      b.  Captopril

         c.  Methyldopa                                                               d.  Propranolol

11.    An old patient has been successfully treated with thiazide diuretics, for the last 4

         months, his diastolic pressure has steadily increased, and he was prescribed an

         additional antihypertensive drug. Now he complains of, unable to achieve an

         excretion and that he is no longer able to complete three sets of tennis. The 2nd

               antihypertensive medication is most likely to be

         a.  Captopril                                                       b.  Losartan

         c.  Minoxidil                                                      d.  Nifedipine

12.    Which of the following drug is used in the treatment of severe to malignant


         a.  Hydralazine                                                  b.  Minoxidil

         c.  Sodium nitroprusside                                   d.  Fenoldopam

13.    Among the following drugs which is the longest acting antihypertensive?

         a.  Labetalol                                                       b.  Nitroprusside

         c.  Nicardipine                                                   d.  Fenoldopam

14.    Sodium nitroprusside is one of the most potent blood-pressure lowering drug. Its

         use is limited because of

         a.  Short duration of action                               b.  Very long duration of action

         c.  Ineffective in oral route                                d.  None of the above


15.    Which of the following NSAID has strong oxygen free radical scavenging effect along with cox inhibitory activity?

         a.  Aspirin                                                          b.  Naproxen

         c.  Sulindac                                                        d.  Piroxicam


16.    Aspirin exerts its anti-platelet effect by inhibiting.

         a.  COX-1                                                           b.  COX-2

         c.  COX-3                                                           d.  Leukotriene synthesis

17.    Acetaminophen has advantages over aspirin or other NSAIDS by virtue of

         a.  Relative lack of anti-platelet effects.

         b.  Lack of ulcerative effect.

         c.  Safe alternate for children with viral infections.

         d.  All the above.


18.    The NSAIDs, act as an anti-inflammatory through their ability to inhibit

         a.  Cox-1                                                            b.  Cox-2

         c.  Cox-3                                                            d.  Leukotriene synthesis

19.    The liver toxicity of Paracetamol is treated by.

         P.  Acetyl cysteine                                             Q.  Glutathione

         R.  Methionine                                                   S.  Levamisole

         a.  Q,S                            b.  Q,R                         c.  P,R                         d.  P,S


20.    Which of the following drug has effect on COX of brain?

         a.  Ibuprofen                                                      b.  Piroxicam

         c.  Naproxen                                                      d.  Paracetamol

21.    Which of the following NSAIDs has no anti-inflammatory action?

         a.  Piroxicam                                                     b.  Paracetamol

         c.  Diclofenac                                                    d.  None of the above

22.    The selective cycloxygenase-2 inhibitors have been associated with which of the following adverse drug reaction?

         a. Severe ischemic colitis                                 b.  Torsade des point

         c. Acute liver failure                                         d.  Cardiovascular thrombotic effects.

 23.   What is the side effect of Misoprostol is used to prevent ulcer produced by NSAIDs

         a.  Fever                                                             b.  Gastrointestinal cramping and diarrhoea.

         c.  Headache                                                      d.  All the above

24.    Which of the following drugs decrease the release of leukotrienes?

         a.  Zafirlukast                                                    b.  Zileuton

         c.  Montelukast                                                  d.  All the above

25.    Which of the following drug is used for the treatment of rheumatic arthritis, ankylosing spondylitis, osteoarthritis and have long half-life and permits administration once a day.

         a.  Refecoxib                                                      b.  Diclofenac

         c.  Mioxicam                                                     d.  None of the above

26.    Which of the following drugs is used in eye related pains?

         a.  Ibuprofen                                                      b.  Ketorolac

         c.  Dicofenac                                                      d.  Both b and c

27.    Which of the following drug is used in the treatment of post operative pains and allergic conjuctivitis?

         a.  Morphine                                                      b.  Fentanyl 

         c.  Diclofenac                                                    d.  Ketorolac

28.    N-acetylbenzoiminoquinone is highly reactive and potentially dangerous metabolites of paracetamol that conjugates with

         a.  Glutathione                                                   b.  Sulphate

         c.  Glucuronite                                                   d.  Acetyl

29.    Probenecid is used in the treatment of gout, inhibits excretion of penicillin, naproxen, ketoprofen and indomethacin. The mechanism involved is           

         a.  Increases tubular secretion                           b.  Decreases tubular secretion.

         c.  Both a and b                                                  d.  None of the above

30.    Match the following.

            Drug                                                               Pharmacological action

         1.  Aspirin                                                          P.  Rise body temperature

         2.  Acetaminophen                                            Q.  Potent anti-inflammatory activity

         3.  Phenylbutazone                                            R.  Increase of depth of respiration

         4.  Probenecid                                                    S.  Non-inflammatory analgesic

a.  1-R                            b.  1-S                         c.  1-Q                         d.  1-S

     2-S                                 2-R                              2-P                              2-R

     3-Q                                 3-P                              3-R                              3-P

              4-P                                 4-Q                              4-S                              4-Q

31.    Strychnine poisoning can be treated by using 'universal antidote'. What is the


         P.  2 parts of powdered charcoal

         Q.  2 parts of magnesium oxide

         R.  1 part of each of magnesium chloride and tannic acid

         S.  2 parts of tannic acid and 1 part of powdered charcoal

         a.  P,Q                            b.  P,R                         c.  Q,R                         d.  Q,S

32.    Which type of CNS stimulant acts on the spinal cord?

         a.  Strychnine                                                     b.  Caffeine

         c.  Nikethamide                                                 d.  Amphetamine

33.    What are the pharmacological actions of caffeine?

         a.  Induces the clear flow of thoughts

         b.  Diuretic effect on kidney

         c.  Dialatation of coronary and pulmonary blood vessels

         d.  All the above


34.    Among the following agents which is derived from lysine and used as coagulant?

         P.  Vitamin-K                                                    Q.  Tranexamic acid

         R.  Epsilon amino- caproic acid                                    S.  Ethamsylate

         a.  R,Q                            b.  R,S                         c.  P,R                         d.  P,S

35.    Among the following which is used in both invitro and invivo.

         a.  Heparin                                                         b.  Coumarin

         c.  Fluorides                                                       d.  Oxalates






1. b      2. b      3. c      4. d      5. a      6. c      7. d      8. a      9. c      10.c

11.d     12.a     13.c     14.d     15.b     16.b     17.d     18.a     19. b    20.a                

21. c    22.d     23.a     24.d     25. a    26. b    27.c     28.c     29.i.c   ii.a

iii.c      30. b    31. d    32.b     33.a     34.b     35.a




1.a       2.a       3.a       4.a       5.d       6.b       7.b       8.c       9.c       10.a                

11.d     12.c     13.b     14.a     15.a     16.a     17.c     18.b     19.d     20.d 

21.d     22.a     23.c     24.c     25.c    




1.a       2.b       3.d       4.a       5.c       6.b       7.i.b     ii.d       8.c       9.b                  

10.d     11.b     12.i.b   ii.c       13. d    14.c     15.d     16.d     17.d     18.b

19.a     20.d     21.a     22.a     23.d     24.b     25.c     26.d     27.a     28.c                

29.c     30.a     31.c     32.b     33.c     34.d     35.c




1.d       2.c       3.c       4.d       5.b       6.b       7.d       8.c       9.i.b     ii.a                  

10.i.b   ii. D     11.a     12.c     13.b     14.c     15.i.a   ii.a       16.b     17.d                

18.c     19.d     20.c     21.a     22.c     23.b     24.c     25.a     26.c     27.b

28.b     29.b     30.c     31.d     32.c     33.a     34.b     35.d     36. a     37. e

38.f   39. b        40. a




1. b      2. b      3.c       4.b       5.b       6.a       7.d       8.a       9.c       10.a                

11.b     12.c     13.b     14.a     15.b     16.c     17.a     18.d     19.d     20.a                

21.a     22.b     23.d     24.a     25.b     26.a     27.d     28.a     29.d     30.a

31.c     32.c     33.a     34.c     35.d                




1.c    2.a          3.b       4.d       5.d       6.b       7.d       8.a       9.d       10.i.b  

ii.b    11.a        12.a     13.i.c   ii.d       iii.a      14.a     15.d     16.d     17.a   

18.a  19.a       20.b     21.a h    22.c     23.d     24.c     25.d     26.a     27.a    

28.c     29.d     30.b     31.a     32.b     33.c     34.b     35.b




1.b    2.b          3.c       4.d       5.d       6.d       7.b       8.b       9.a       10.d                

11.d  12.d        13.b     14.b     15.a     16.b     17.c     18.b     19.c     20.b                

21.c  22.d        23.a     24.d     25.a     26. d    27.d     28.b     29.d     30.b                

31.a  32.d        33.d     34.b     35.d     36.b     37.a     38.a     39.a     40.d




1.d    2.a          3.c       4.d       5.b       6.a       7.a       8.c       9.d       10.c    

11.b  12.i. d     ii.a       iii.c      13.a     14.a     15.d     16.a     17.i.b   ii.c      

18.c  19.i.d      ii.d       20.a    21.b      22.a     23.b     24.b     25.a     26.d    

27.d     28.a     29.d     30.a     31.a     32.a     33.d     34.d     35.a    




1.i.b     ii.b       2.a       3.c       4.b       5.c       6.b       7.a       8.b       9.c

10.b     11.c     12.b     13.a     14.d     15.d     16.b     17.d     18.b     19.a                

20.a     21.d     22.b     23.c     24.b     25.b     26.d      27.b      28.d      29.d                 

30.c      31.d      32.b      33.d      34.a      35.a




1.a      2.a          3.b          4.d             5.d          6.d          7.a          8.a          9.c          10.b                     

11.c    12.b       13.a        14.a           15.c     16.a     17.d     18.b     19.c     20.d                

21.b  22.d        23.d     24.b     25.c     26.d     27.d     28.a     29.b     30.a

31.b  32.a        33.d     34. a    35.a



Charan Karumuri's picture

Its exclusively for the gpat aspirants preparing for gpat of luck for the guys who are preparing for gpat.................................


Eswar GsnkRao's picture


Dear Charan,

Good move.

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Good Day.


ESWAR :-) 

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